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#1
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Well, he not only hangs out with unrepentant terrorists, but his first official appointment is the son of a terrorist, and a mentally unstable thug of the first order at that!
For those of you who might have forgotten, Rahm isn't only the moonbat who mails dead fish to pollsters he doesn't like, and who hangs up on political contributors who have the temerity to offer him only $5000.00 for his campaigns instead of the $25,000.00 he would have preferred, no, this is the type of barking moonbat who sits around the dinner table in Little Rock in 1992 with the newly elected President and First Lady, and like an insane Santino "Sonny" Corleone starts naming off those who displeased him by supporting President GHW Bush, stabbing his steak knife deeply into the table and shouting "DEAD"! Quote:
IS THIS THE CHANGE THAT YOU THOUGHT YOU WERE GOING TO GET?? |
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#2
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Bad source material - the Irgun Zvi Leumi has been 'credited' with far more than it ever did by a press that favored 'palestinians' long before there was such a b*st*rd construct and the land was still part of Jordan and Egypt. They also targeted military - or what they had been led to believe were military targets. Many of the 'massacres' they are accused of were perpetrated by 'militant' arabs on their 'brothers' who recognized Israel's right to exist. Also, while there may be some supposed 'justice' of the alleged 'sins' of the fathers being vested on the suns, this dipchit has his own record of aberrant behavior.
Additionally, who is being called to account for the half of his new boss' campaign chests that came in illegally from hostile nations and the likes of 'Mickey Mouse' or the hundreds of thousands of illegal 'voters' who made the coronation possible? Who will 'cast the first stone' when he violates yet another oath of office and attempts to overthrow the Constitution? If a United States citizen 'lacks standing' to challenge the qualifications of a candidate for the Presidency, who, precisely, has 'standing' to call treason? |
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#3
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), this ties in quite nicely with a discussion we've had before. The Courts, beginning with the highly dubious decision in Marbury v Madison decided that THEY get to decide who does and does not have "standing" to bring a case before them, and yet they have absolutely no problem making a ruling in a case that they just said that they had no jurisdiction to hear. From that "fruit of the poisoned tree" we now have a system of (in)justice, they are simply another cudgel for whichever party that put them in office in the first place, and are no longer constrained by their Oaths of office, or their alleged fealty to the Constitution.Quote:
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#4
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'Historical record' being the product of writers with agendas long after the fact, and instances abounding of groups (and individuals) believing - or accepting credit for - what the press 'reports', there is little doubt that some of the incidents did occur, and civilians were killed. One wonders, however, just how 'innocent' at least some of those 'civilians' may have been - their grandchildren still haven't donned uniforms to do battle.
That was, however, an aside - the point is that a marxist politician tutored by terrorists has begun recruiting (and 'legitimizing') terrorists as his 'advisors'. This bodes ill for us all, and can only spiral downhill when the realization dawns on the great unwashed who put him in power that he isn't going to pay their rent, buy their gas, or buy their crack. It's entirely possible that at that time, the prearranged riots scheduled for the moment he lost the election will be ignited, and crushed - along with yet more of the liberties we've taken for granted. |
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#5
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As to the Court's seizure of power in the referenced case, it's still my contention that the Founding Fathers' intent was three coequal partners, a true system of checks and balances. The problem does not lie in their power to determine whether legislation is or is not Constitutional, as with so much in life - and especially with the Constitution - the problem lies in the (illicit) interpretation of the Constitution.
As mentioned, no judge or lawyer is nominated without a reasonably strict fealty to his party's view of the 'meaning and intent' of the Constitution; unfortunately, only one party currently in contention so much as professes a nodding acquaintance with 'original intent', despite the availability of their copious works - both in the Federalist/Antifederalist Papers and supplementary writings (which have, as in the 'wall of separation between Church and State', been intentionally perverted and taken out of context). Would the Court be composed, as intended, of Justices chosen for their intelligence and comprehension of the spirit and intent of the Constitution, rather than their political partisanship and law degrees (no requirement for which formally exists), the point would be moot. |
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#6
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Having said all of that, I do agree that the problem is the aforementioned illicit interpretation of the Constitution, and in this case, the fallacious interpretation is that the Supreme Court has the authority of "judicial review" under our Constitution that the courts in England did under their laws. As I'm sure you're aware, the Constitution was drawn heavily from existing English law, and as such the Justices believed that they should be allowed the right of "Judicial Review" just as the courts in England did, however what they failed to account for in their seizure of an unspecified right is that in England, the rulings of the court were subject to review by the legislature, yet there is no mechanism in our Constitution for our legislature to do so, therefore there is no means under our Constitution for We The People to correct an illicit interpretation by the Supreme Court. As was warned against in the 15th essay by Robert Yates, writing under the pseudonym Brutus, on March the 20th of 1788; Quote:
This then begs the question asked by none other than Chief Justice Marshall, if the courts are not the final arbiter of whether a law is constitutional or not, who is? For the answer to this, I turn to none other than Thomas Jefferson who stated among his many writings on the subject that; Quote:
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#7
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I just spent over an hour crafting a response, and lost it all when I attempted to post because my "Your submission could not be processed because the token has expired.
Please push the back button and reload the previous window.(?)". Obviously, there are 'subtle' problems with this software. |
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#8
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#9
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BTDT, but at 0700 on less sleep than even I need, just too much work. Fear not, we will get back to it.
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#10
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Anyway, to continue;
The challenges with Marbury are many, not the least of which is the fact that the court ruled that they did not even have original jurisdiction to hear the case, yet they still made a ruling, not only as it relates to the case that they themselves stated that they had no jurisdiction to hear, but also to claim that they had the right to judicial review, even though no such provision exists in Article III of the Constitution. Further, Chief Justice Marshall was himself personally involved in the original circumstances that led to the case in that he was acting as President John Adams Secretary of State, and as such it was his duty to deliver the appointment of Justice of the Peace to William Marbury, and it was his failure to do so that led to the case. The fact that Justice Marshall did not recuse himself from the case, given his intimate participation in the debacle that led to the case brings into question his impartiality in the ruling. Also, Marbury filed his petition for a Writ of Madamus directly to the Supreme Court, which was in complete compliance with the Judiciary Act of 1789 which had also determined the composition of the courts in America, thereby meaning that the court DID have original jurisdiction to hear the case, but by nullifying their right to issue Writs of Mandamus in it's ruling against Marbury, the court essentially engaged in a form of "Ex Post Facto". The court cannot agree to hear a case, and then decide that they're going to overturn the law as passed by Congress and signed by the President (a power nowhere present in the text of Article III), and THEN tell the appellate that they don't have jurisdiction to hear the case because they just decided that the law that allowed the case to be heard in the first place is "unconstitutional", that's INSANE! In his ruling, Justice Marshall invalidated that part of the Judiciary Act of 1789 concerning Writs of Mandamus, yet left the rest of the Act intact, but I find no "line item veto" anywhere in Article III of the Constitution, and as the court ruled in the "line item veto" case in 1996, any removal or modification of any part of a Bill is unconstitutional, which means that if the Writs of Mandamus are "unconstitutional", then the entire Judiciary Act of 1789 is "unconstitutional" and invalid, which means that his ruling is moot on it's face since his very presence on the court was a result of the Judiciary Act! Therefore we have one of two situations, either the court erred in it's 1996 case, since it would violate the precedent set by itself in 1803 by deciding that they could "cherry pick" what parts of a law were and were not Constitutional, or the court erred in 1803 and certain parts of legislation can be "vetoed" while the rest of the law remains in effect. Not only is this insane, it is in direct contradiction to Article III, Section 2 of the Constitution which clearly states; Quote:
Last edited by 03_SHOOTER; 11-09-2008 at 10:11 AM. |
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